Did anyone have a fx diagnosed and it turned out not to be a fracture ????

the patients initial visit - there was an x-ray done in the office - impression - an avulsion fx because of this the patient was sent for an MRI to evaluate the fracture.- note diagnosed as S92.251A - however the MRI states NO FX - would you code the fracture dx on the follow - up visit as S92.251D ( even if there is NO fracture) or drop the fracture dx from the follow up visit.
My thoughts - if there is NO fx then we shouldn't be coding a fracture on the follow up visit.  Thoughts - suggestions appreciated.


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